# Versus Tests and Obstacle Modifiers

So, this is a little silly, but I couldn’t find anything definite in the book and it’s come up a few times.

Say I’m rolling a versus test against an opponent and I’ve got a +1 to my ob. How does that work out?

If my ob is the number of successes my opponent rolls, it becomes possible for both sides to fail. This isn’t strictly covered in the rules, I don’t believe, but I can see it.

The situations I’ve seen it come up in the most are versus tests during Firefights, where one side is penalized for some reason (suppressive fire, often enough) and the number of successes the victor scores is important.

Regards,
Daniel

In a Versus test, the number of successes your opponent rolls is considered your obstacle (for advancement and everything else). Therefore, when suffering a +1 Ob penalty in a versus test, you increase the number of successes you need to win by one. So if you’re at +1 Ob and the dice tie, your opponent wins by one.

-L

Thanks, Luke. I thought I remembered that from BW, but I didn’t see it explicitly addressed in BE.

So in the case of Obstacle modifiers, it’s possible to create situations where both sides of the versus test fail.

Regards,
Daniel

Hmm… They way I’ve always interpreted this is that when you are doing a versus test that involves an Ob penalty, each +1 Ob eats one success rolled on the dice. For example, if I have a +2 Ob and roll 4 successes, I has 2 successes left over for purposes of comparing to my opponent.

Alas, I’m pretty sure that’s wrong. It’s always at least 1 Ob, so 1 Ob + 2 Ob penalties = 3 Ob total. On four successes, you take two successes away for the 2 Ob penalty and one for the base 1 Ob difficulty, leaving you with but 1 excess success.

Is it always at least obstacle 1? Even if your opponent rolls 0 successes?

As near as I can tell, all the book says is that you win a versus test if you get more successes than your opponent.

Regards,
Daniel

For a versus test, the obstacle is equal to your opponent’s successes. So if your opponent gets no successes, and you get 1, you got one success over your obstacle – you have a margin of success of 1.

Wilhelm’s interpretation is correct – it’s just another way of saying it. Mike’s interpretation is correct in the case of independent tests, not versus tests.

-L

Thanks again, Luke.

Regards,
Daniel

I had a poblem undersanding the OB thing, till I though about like rafial! now it makes sense to me implicitly.

Edit: Is implicitly the word I want? oh well… you know what I mean.